Are (bool)(i & 1) and i % 2 == 1 same?

Are (bool)(i & 1) and i % 2 == 1开发者_运维技巧 always same where i is int?

Note: saying always I mean for all platforms (even when a byte is 16 bit) and for all standards of C and C++.

Edit:

For all standards of C and C++ where bool exist.

No.

1s' complement representation of int, the representation of -1 is 1 ... 10, so they differ.

Anyway, i % 2 can be negative for negative i (indeed it's required to be in C99 when it's not 0), and hence not equal to 1 for negative odd numbers.

No.

For example, try it if i is -1. -1 % 2 == -1, and (bool) (-1 & 1) is 1.

(Assuming 2-complement)